GIP agonism AND GIP antagonism both seem to work. how?
This is the thing in metabolic pharmacology I find hardest to square.
Tirzepatide includes GIP receptor agonism and works. There's separately credible work suggesting GIP receptor antagonism plus GLP-1 agonism also produces benefit.
Both directions can't be straightforwardly right under a simple receptor model. Resolutions I've seen argued:
1. Sustained agonism desensitizes the receptor, so chronic agonism is functionally closer to antagonism. The two converge. 2. Tissue specific effects. Central vs peripheral GIP signaling doing different things. 3. The benefit attributed to GIP in tirzepatide is actually from something else about the molecule.
I don't think any of these is established. 1 is the most cited and plausible but not obviously demonstrated. Mix of preclinical mechanism work and human trial outcomes, with the reconciliation being inference in every case.
Genuinely open question. Anyone seen a convincing resolution?